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2013년 8월 30일 금요일

PW0-250 덤프 CWNP 인증

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시험 번호/코드: PW0-250
시험 이름: CWNP (Certified Wireless Design Professional (CWDP) )

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NO.1 Your customer location is equipped with DAS, originally deployed to relay a GSM signal indoors and
provide 802.11 data coverage to static stations. What type of wireless application would be least likely to
be supported by this RF distribution model?
A. On-demand video streaming over wireless
B. Data connection with frequent roaming
C. Location-based services for wireless assets or RFID tags
D. VoWLAN if the codec is G.729.
E. FTP over implicit TLS/SSL
Answer: C

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NO.2 One of your customers plans on providing wireless coverage to a warehouse facility. After performing an
initial walkthrough, you collect the following information:
-The central part of the warehouse is between 400 and 600 feet (122 to 183 meters) from the warehouse
switches mounted on the walls.
-The warehouse map was provided by the customer and is displayed in the exhibit.
-The warehouse storage is composed of metallic racks with varying inventory levels and contents, from
electronics and plastic toys to food pallets and juice bottles.
-Workers need basic data coverage from their working location, and are not highly mobile. They usually
work from one single aisle, and their laptop is on a cart with wheels.
What would be your recommendation to provide coverage to the central area (indicated by a blue circle)
of the warehouse?
A. Equip workers laptops with a directional antenna and install APs less than 328 feet (100m) away from
the switch.
B. In this case, extend the cable length just beyond 328 feet (100 m) and position APs as close as
possible to the central area of the warehouse.
C. Position APs along the walls, and equip the APs with Yagi antennas to cover the central area.
D. Install APs for client access in the central area and use a mesh backhaul link to connect to the DS.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When deploying long-distance 802.11 bridge links (10 miles / 16 km), what parameter may be critical for
improving data flow by reducing retries caused by the long distances.?
A. The sequence control field value
B. The acknowledgement timeout threshold
C. The minimum transmit data rate value
D. The CTS-to-self threshold
E. The Beacon interval
F. The PHY parameter set field
Answer: B

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NO.4 When a WLAN controller transmits an Ethernet frame that has an IEEE 802.11 frame as its payload to a
lightweight AP, what type of QoS marks can be applied to the Ethernet frame and/or its payload? (Choose
3)
A. IEEE 802.1Q PCP marks in the Ethernet frame header
B. User Priority marks in the IEEE 802.11 frame header
C. Throughput subscription marks in the Ethernet frame header
D. MPLS tags from the Label Edge Router (LER)
E. DSCP marks to the ToS bits in the encapsulating IP packet header
F. RSVP tag if RTP is the payload of the IEEE 802.11 frame
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Which definition correctly describes the local MAC
variation of the centralized WLAN architecture?
A. All MAC functions are performed by the AP. A minimal subset of network control is offloaded to the
WLAN controller along with management and monitoring functions.
B. PHY functions are performed directly by the AP. MAC functions are divided almost equally between the
WLAN controller and the AP, according to the time sensitivity of the feature or service.
C. The AP provides the RF termination point for the WLAN, but performs very few of the WLAN functions
or services. The WLAN controller performs all MAC functions and the AP is very simple and lightweight.
D. All RF-, data-, and control-related WLAN functions are performed by the AP. APs coordinate network
services with one another and are managed by a WNMS, so no WLAN controller is used in this
architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.6 According to WLAN security design best practices, what is true of the EAP properties shown in the
exhibit?
A. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should be checked if you purchased a third-party SSL
certificate for the AS, but left unchecked if you have a self-signed certificate for the AS.
B. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should always be checked to prevent MITM attacks from
rogue authentication servers.
C. The Trusted Root Certification Authorities
list is provided to identify the certificate that the client
should send to the AS for client authentication.
D. The Do not prompt user to authorize new servers or trusted certification authorities
box should be
checked only for administrative users.
E. The Enable Identity Privacy
checkbox and anonymous name field are only useful for networks
supporting EAP-LEAP.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question.
The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
Answer: C

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NO.8 In a manufacturing facility with highly reflective materials, you are planning an upgrade to your existing
802.11b solution. You have chosen a dual-band 802.11n infrastructure product for this purpose. Your
client applications include:
Handheld scanners
for inventory management
Toughbooks (laptops)
mounted on forklifts for inventory and workflow management
VoWiFi phones
used by select employees throughout the facility You are evaluating all of the 802.11n
enhancements and determining which features to enable for your environment and applications.
In this scenario, what 802.11n enhancements should NOT be enabled on the 2.4 GHz radio of the new
APs? (Choose 2)
A. 40 MHz channels
B. Short guard intervals
C. Block Acknowledgments
D. Frame aggregation
E. MRC
F. STBC
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 In a centralized WLAN architecture, what new problem may arise when you change the data forwarding
model from centralized to distributed? (Choose 2)
A. APs that were designed for a centralized forwarding model may not support all features in distributed
forwarding mode.
B. The Ethernet switch ports to which APs are connected may need to be reconfigured to support VLAN
tagging and QoS at the network edge.
C. All RRM controls will also need to be distributed to a master AP that acts as a channel and transmit
power arbiter for other APs in the ESS.
D. Centralized control functions, such as key management and distribution, RRM, and load balancing will
no longer be supported.
E. APs will not have the processing capabilities to support AES-CCMP, so TKIP will be the recommended
encryption method.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 After surveying for the ideal mounting locations for APs, you have been asked to compromise RF
propagation optimization due to aesthetic concerns raised by your customer. In the end, you ve decided to
mount the APs in the ideal locations and paint the APs so they go unnoticed in the environment.
What is a valid recommendation or consideration when painting APs? (Choose 2)
A. Always use paints with metallic dye in them to prevent potential RF propagation impact.
B. Do not paint the notification LEDs on the AP, but configure them to be dim or turned off altogether until
troubleshooting is required.
C. Painting APs may void the product manufacturer s warranty.
D. Most AP models for indoor environments come in a variety of form factors and colors. Painting is never
recommended.
E. Painting APs always introduces a fire and gas emissions hazard and should be avoided for all indoor
APs.
Answer: B,C

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시험 번호/코드: TK0-201
시험 이름: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))

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NO.1 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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NO.3 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.8 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.11 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

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NO.12 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

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NO.13 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.14 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.15 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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NO.17 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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NO.18 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.19 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.20 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: PD1-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)

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NO.1 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.6 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.11 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.12 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.13 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.14 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.16 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.18 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.20 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam)

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NO.1 Implementing a set of policies and procedures that define the corporate information is confidential and
training employees on these procedures can help prevent which of the following?
A.Patch management
B.Man-in-the-middle attacks
C.Smurf attacks
D.Social engineering
Answer:D

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NO.2 SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A.Transport
B.Application
C.Network
D.Presentation
Answer:B

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NO.3 A network using RIP has taken several minutes to begin routing traffic around a failed piece of
equipment. Which of the following could be implemented to improve convergence time?
A.Replace RIP with static routes so dynamic updates are not sent.
B.Replace RIP with a distance-vector routing protocol such as RIP version 2.
C.Replace RIP with a link-state routing protocol such as OSPF.
D.Replace RIP with an exterior gateway protocol such as BGP.
Answer:C

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NO.4 A technician is setting up a wireless network using WEP and DHCP. The technician has set the
channel and SSID on the client workstation. Which of the following is the remaining step to complete the
configuration?
A.Enter the username and password.
B.Enter an IP address for the client.
C.Change the SSID.
D.Enter the encryption key.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which of the following is the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.IMAP4
D.Telnet
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which of the following VPN protocols runs over port 1723 and allows encryption to be done at the data
level?
A.PPTP
B.SLIP
C.PPPoE
D.RAS
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain level authentication on a wireless
network?
A.WEP
B.RADIUS
C.TKIP
D.WAP
Answer:B

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NO.10 Remote users are having problems accessing files from a file server. Which of the following should a
technician check FIRST?
A.Connectivity
B.User accounts
C.Network resources
D.Access rights
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which of the following software types would BEST be used for identifying an attack?
A.IDS
B.Packet sniffer
C.IPS
D.Port scanner
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following is an advantage of 100Base-FX over 100Base-TX?
A.Ease of installation
B.Uses a more durable cable
C.Faster transmission speeds
D.Longer cable runs
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which of the following is used to simplify the process of setting up a network and the administration of
the network?
A.DNS
B.ZEROCONF
C.WINS
D.SNMP
Answer:B

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NO.14 A company is in the process of upgrading their network infrastructure to support new VoIP telephony
equipment. Which of the following is a primary feature to consider when selecting a new switch to support
the phones?
A.PoE
B.Modular chassis
C.Port mirroring
D.VPN capability
Answer:A

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NO.15 A technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a clients machine. The technician needs to see
the current NetBIOS configuration and open connections, which of the following commands would allow
this information to be displayed?
A.nbtstat
B.netstat
C.msconfig
D.ipconfig
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Mesh
D.Ring
Answer:B

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NO.17 At which of the following layers of the OSI model would a repeater operate?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 5
D.Layer 7
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following is part of the IP protocol suite and is used to monitor network managed devices?
A.SMTP
B.LDAP
C.SMB
D.SNMP
Answer:D

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NO.19 Convert the following binary string to its dotted decimal address:
11000000.10101000.01100011.00011010
A.192.168.99.26
B.192.168.101.26
C.192.168.101.34
D.192.168.99.34
Answer:A

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NO.20 Automatic private Internet protocol addressing (APIPA) assigns IP addresses from which of the
following ranges?
A.172.16.x.x
B.10.0.x.x
C.192.168.x.x
D.169.254.x.x
Answer:D

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NO.21 Which of the following is correct when converting 192 to binary?
A.11000000
B.00110000
C.00001100
D.00000011
Answer:A

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NO.22 Which of the following mechanisms is used to calculate back-off time on an Ethernet link after a
collision?
A.Weighted Random Early Detect (WRED)
B.Spanning Tree
C.CSMA/CD
D.CSMA/CA
Answer:C

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NO.23 Which of the following can operate at both layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model?
A.Hub
B.Repeater
C.Switch
D.Bridge
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which of the following is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address?
A.netstat
B.rarp
C.arp
D.nslookup
Answer:C

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NO.25 Everyday around lunch time there is network latency on the Windows proxy server 10.1.1.7. Which of
the following network utilities can a technician run in order to determine the severity of the latency?
A.arp -t 10.1.1.7
B.tracert -t 10.1.1.7
C.ping -t 10.1.1.7
D.nbtstat -t 10.1.1.7
Answer:C

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NO.26 Which of the following cable types allows for the maximum cable run distance?
A.Multi-mode fiber
B.Single-mode fiber
C.CAT3
D.Coaxial
Answer:B

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NO.27 A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following
types of cable?
A.CAT6
B.25 pair
C.Fiber optic
D.100 pair
Answer:B

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NO.28 Which of the following routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing table?
A.OSPF
B.IS-IS
C.EIGRP
D.BGP
Answer:D

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NO.29 A technician needs to connect a laptop via the small office, home office (SOHO) wireless access point.
When the technician does a site survey using the laptop the wireless network is not discovered.
Computers previously on the wireless network were connected, and the wireless card appears to be
working. Which of the following could be causing the issue?
A.The WEP key is not correct.
B.The wireless router does not have adequate AC power.
C.The SSID is set to not broadcast.
D.The laptop is running on Windows Service Pack 1.
Answer:C

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NO.30 Which of the following protocols permits secure polling of network devices?
A.SCP
B.SSH
C.SNMPv2
D.SNMPv3
Answer:D

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시험 번호/코드: JK0-015
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

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NO.4 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

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NO.10 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

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NO.11 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

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NO.12 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.14 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

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NO.16 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

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NO.17 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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NO.20 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: LX0-101
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1)

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

NO.2 Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends
which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16
lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the
administrator's fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount
media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search
for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Answer: B

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NO.7 All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie "s/1/2/" /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A

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NO.8 To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs
to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program's shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named _______ is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please
provide the fill name with full path information).
Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

NO.10 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Answer: A

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NO.11 An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow
the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the difference between the --remove and the --purge action with the dpkg
command.?
A. --remove removes the program, --purge also removes the config files.
B. --remove only removes the program, --purge only removes the config files.
C. --remove removes a package, --purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. --remove removes only the package file itself, --purge removes all files related to the package.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to
searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. --max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Answer: C

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NO.14 An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following
directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.15 The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Answer: E

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시험 번호/코드: SY0-301
시험 이름: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.4 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.5 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.6 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.11 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.14 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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NO.16 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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NO.17 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.19 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: HIT-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has
certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following types of health insurance allows the patient to direct his/her own care?
A. HMO
B. Indemnity Plan
C. Point of Service
D. PPO
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting the well being of all health care workers?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Food and Drug Administration
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Department of Health and Human Services
Answer: C

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NO.4 A dot matrix printer prints faded or light characters on the paper. What could be the most likely cause of
the issue?
A. Incorrect printer driver
B. A print head pin that is stuck inside the print head
C. Bad printer port
D. Worn-out ribbon
Answer: D

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NO.5 A visiting IT professional is at an OBGYN practice and has been granted access to the computer system,
but not the practice's paper records it's previous system of charting for patients. It's after standard work
hours the IT professional is working late. He knows an ex-girlfriend used to be a patient at the practice
and decides he wants to see her charts, since he can't find her in the computer. What simple Physical
Safeguard would help fulfill HIPAA by protecting against the IT professional from accessing the practice's
PHI?
A. The paper records are in locked the mobile charting cabinets in the check-in area.
B. The paper records are color coded.
C. The paper records are locked in storage room.
D. The paper records are kept in a series of drawers only known to the Privacy Officer.
Answer: C

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NO.6 This group can apply for incentive payments for the adaption, implementation, upgrading and/or
meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology, due to provisions of the Health Information
Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009. Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Hospitals
B. Patients
C. Healthcare Clearinghouse
D. Eligible providers
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a project management tool that is characterized by circles connected by lines
to indicate the sequence of event?
A. PERT Diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. Venn Diagram
D. Critical Path
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following measures the time a cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam takes to paint a
screen from top to bottom?
A. Bus width
B. Dot Pitch
C. Video RAM size
D. Refresh rate
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following portable computer systems is used by smart phones for offering advanced OS
capabilities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SBC
B. SFF
C. Tablet PC
D. PDA
E. laptop
Answer: D

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NO.10 One of the data fields within the HL7 specifications is for Provider Type. What does this mean?
A. It's the type of healthcare facility the patient is being seen in.
B. Specifies the major grouping of the service or occupation of the practitioner
C. It's the type of insurer providing insurance coverage for the patient.
D. Specifies the seniority level of the physician
Answer: B

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Explanation: The specialty of the provider or practitioner is what is contained in the Provider Typedata
field, for example Behavioral and Social Services, or Neurology or Dermatology. Answer: A isincorrect.
Provider in this case refers to the physician or health care professional, not the facility.Answer: C is

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incorrect. Provider does not refer to the insurance entity. Answer: D is incorrect."type" does not refer to
the seniority level of the physician, but their specialty field.

NO.11 Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
A. 3DES
B. RC4
C. AES
D. DES
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Information such as your name, date of birth and social security number are all considered to be
protected health information. This information would fall into which of the following categories?
A. De-Indentified Health Information
B. Individually Identifiable Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. Demographic Health Information
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its
way to the remote host?
A. Helix
B. PATHPING
C. TRACERT
D. Netstat
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are hired by an Office Manager at a branch of a home health care service company to help install
software for client scheduling, billing and insurance coding and payroll preparation. The office manager is
impressed with your work and recommends your work to the next level of administration within the
organization. What position might that be? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
all that apply.
A. Board of Directors
B. Billing Coordinator
C. Staffing Coordinator
D. President
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 You work in a healthcare clinic that has many patients that receive benefits from a state program that
helps low-income families with the costs of healthcare. You have to work with the state office to check on
the design and deployment of healthcare information systems that can help check eligibility policies and
deploy electronic health records in treatment and billing. What is one of the names of this kind of
program?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Tricare
D. FEHB
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are responsible for securing the network at a law firm. You are concerned about printer security.
What steps should you take to prevent printer security breaches? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Remove the printer's driver from user computers.
B. Scan printer hard drives for spyware and viruses.
C. Secure any administrative connections (SSH, Telnet, etc.) to printers.
D. Limit print jobs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 According to HIPAA, how long must a medical practice retain a patient's medical records?
A. ten years
B. five years
C. three years
D. HIPAA does not mandate how long.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the
following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system?
A. Three-Tier Architecture
B. WAN Technology
C. Two-Tier Architecture
D. LAN Technology
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following types of budget incorporates the budgets of each individual business unit?
A. Organizational Budget
B. Operating Budget
C. Statistical Budget
D. Master Budget
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following is a new feature of iOS 5?
A. Ability to dual boot the Android OS
B. Ability to run native PC applications
C. Ability to perform iTunes backups
D. Ability to perform untethered updates
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following encryption standards is found on older wireless devices and provides
minimal security?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. AES
Answer: C

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NO.3 A user wants to prevent access to specific websites to prevent their children from accidently
accessing them. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. A switch
B. Antivirus software
C. Antispyware software
D. A firewall
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician would like to dispose of a hard drive that is no longer needed. According to
company
policy, all contents on the disk should be deleted before disposal. Which of the following OS
command line tools should be used?
A. CHKDSK
B. DEL
C. SCANDSK
D. FORMAT
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user on a domain network cannot install software that they need. Which of the following
user
groups is this user MOST likely associated with?
A. Standard user
B. Guest user
C. Power user
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
A. Reduces the training required for employees.
B. Reduces the amount of physical hardware required.
C. Reduces the amount of CPU required on the host PC.
D. Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access.
Which
of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies.
B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server.
C. Remove all Internet shortcuts.
D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer calls and states the new plasma display they just received has yellow spots all over
the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Using wrong video connector
B. Dead pixels
C. Dropped in shipping
D. Incorrect installation
Answer: B

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NO.10 A user gets an error message that the trust relationship to the domain has been broken.
Which of
the following can be done to resolve this from the client desktop?
A. Re-join the computer to the domain
B. Reboot the PC as the domain will automatically rebuild the relationship
C. Update the BIOS using the latest version
D. Run CHKDSK
Answer: A

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IT업계에 종사하는 분들은 치열한 경쟁을 많이 느낄것입니다. 치열한 경쟁속에서 자신의 위치를 보장하는 길은 더 많이 배우고 더 많이 노력하는것 뿐입니다.국제적으로 인정받은 IT인증자격증을 취득하는것이 제일 중요한 부분이 아닌가 싶기도 합니다. 다른 분이 없는 자격증을 내가 소유하고 있다는 생각만 해도 뭔가 안전감이 느껴지지 않나요? 더는 시간낭비하지 말고ITExamDump의CompTIA인증 JK0-802덤프로CompTIA인증 JK0-802시험에 도전해보세요.