IT인증시험을 패스보장----ITExamDump 시험대비덤프제공사이트!: 11월 2013

2013년 11월 29일 금요일

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-019
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop 6.0 Product Proficiency)
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NO.1 You make a selection with the polygon lasso tool. When a color fill is applied, the edg appears rough.
Which tool option should have been selected to soften the selection edg.
A. Blur
B. Border
C. Smooth
D. Anti-Alised
Answer: D

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NO.2 A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should
you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette.
B. Select the gradient tool from the toolbox. select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient
tool across the shape
C. Select the shape layer; click the Layer Style button on the Layers palette and select
Gradient Overly; choose a gradient and click OK
D. Select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select
Gradient Map. choose a gradient and click OK
Answer: C

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NO.3 When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers.
D. It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
Answer: D

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NO.4 If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve
C. Difference
D. Color Burn
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set
D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B

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NO.9 Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
Answer: D

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NO.10 Exhibit.
You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C

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NO.11 Exhibit.
You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
Answer: CD

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.14 You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B

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NO.16 You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool you want modify the selection. Which tool or
tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-019기출문제   9A0-019

NO.17 Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019기출문제   9A0-019

NO.18 Which file format supports spot color channel?
A. PICT
B. JPEG
C. Gif89a
D. DCS 2.0
Answer: D

Adobe시험문제   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.19 What is the most efficient thod to isolate a complex object form is background?
A. create a layer mask
B. create an alpha channel
C. use the Extract Image command
D. use the lasso tool to create a selection
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-019   9A0-019자격증   9A0-019   9A0-019

NO.20 You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer's blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer's blending mode to Difference
C. apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
D. apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-125
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop Lightroom 2 ACE Exam)
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NO.1 You are working on a Raw image using the Adobe Camera Raw dialog box. What will happen if you
click on the Open button in the Camera Raw dialog box?
A. The originalRaw image is opened in Photoshop.
B. A newRaw image is opened in the Camera Raw dialog box.
C. A list ofRaw images is opened.
D. A copy ofRaw image is opened with the camera Raw settings applied in Photoshop.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want to add a graphical watermark with copyright information in one of your photographs. Which of
the following statements are correct in this situation? Each correct Answer: represents a complete

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solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can only apply a graphical watermark.
B. You cannot set or customize the size, placement, or appearance of text-based watermark.
C. You can specify the color with the Detail Text option in the Color Palette panel.
D. You can only apply a text-based watermark.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes the Camera RAW format?
A. Unprocessed, uncompressed full color picture
B. A processed but uncompressed image format
C. Unprocessed, uncompressed grayscale image data
D. A compressed image format produced form digital camera
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you view a PSD file in Adobe Bridge, which of the following lets you view the file information?
A. Metadata
B. File Description
C. Info
D. Keywords
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following tools in Photoshop is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image?
A. Burn
B. Clone Stamp
C. Sponge
D. Dodge
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following options can you use to revert back to the Lightroom default settings?
A. Double-clicking individual slider controls.
B. Clicking the General - Zeroed preset in the Presets panel.
C. Choosing Undo from the Edit menu.
D. Clicking the Reset button.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements best describes the layer groups?
A. It groups the similar layers in one smart object.
B. It is a set of grouped layers in one group folder.
C. It groups the similar layers in one group folder.
D. It compiles multiple layers in one layer.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .Drag and drop the appropriate tools to their respective descriptions.
Explanation:
The Sharpen tool is used to harden edges or area within an image. It works by increasing contrast of the
specified area. To use the Sharpen tool, drag the tool over the area of the image needed to be sharpen. It
sharps the image according to the size of the brush defined, and the strength and blending mode
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) when this tool is
active to blur the image. The Sponge tool is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image. To change the color saturation, just click and drag with the tool on the image. The tool has two
modes, Saturate and Desaturate . When the Saturate mode is selected in the Options bar, the amount of
color saturation increases whereas the color saturation decreases when the desaturate mode is selected.
Effectiveness of the tool depends on the size of the brush defined and flow value specified in the Options
bar. The Spot Healing Brush tool works similarly to the Healing Brush tool. It enables a user to repair
imperfections of an image by painting with pixels around the retouched area of the image. It matches the
texture, lighting, transparency, and shading details of the pixels to the new surroundings, so that the
repaired pixels merge seamlessly with the rest of the image. The Dodge tool is used to lighten pixels in an
image and bring out the highlights. This tool lightens dark areas in the image according to the size of the
brush defined, range such as Shadows, Midtones or Highlights is selected, and the exposure value
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) to temporarily
access the Burn tool and darken the image.

NO.9 Which of the following blending modes is available only for the painting tools and allows you to add the
blend color only to transparent pixels of a layer?
A. Clear mode
B. Behind mode
C. Multiply mode
D. Darken mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.10 You are creating an image. You want to make multiple copies of a single object in the image. so that
when you edit one of the copies of the object, all the copies of the object are updated. What will you do to
accomplish the task?
A. Choose Image > Duplicate Object command.
B. Choose Image > Duplicate command.
C. Create a Smart Object.
D. Create duplicate layers.
Answer: A,B,C,D

Adobe   9A0-125   9A0-125   9A0-125

NO.11 You create an image for the Web. You used less than 256 colors in the image. The image contains
some transparent areas. The Image also has sharp edges including type. In which of the following file
formats will you save the image?
A. TIFF
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 When you printed an image, Lightroom used the image's native resolution, and will neither upsamplenor
downsample the file. What can be the cause of this situation?
A. You have set theLightroom to optimize the resolution, depending on the size of the print.
B. You have disabled the Print Resolution box.
C. Lightroom is using the default resolution of 240 ppi.
D. Lightroom is using the resolution of the last photograph that was printed.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following image adjustment tabs will you use to create special effects with color images?
A. Basic
B. Detail
C. Split Toning
D. Lens Corrections
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have created a catalog of images on your laptop while shooting on location. Now, you want to
update the catalog by adding files that have been added to the folder but not imported into the catalog,
removing files that have been deleted, and scanning for metadata updates. Which of the following options
will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Click the question-mark icon in a thumbnail cell in the Grid view.
B. Click on the Update Catalog button in the Grid view.
C. Choose Library > Update Photos.
D. Choose Library > Synchronize Folder.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 John works as a Graphics Designer in the Fashion Tech Inc. Currently, he is working on the
Photoshop CS4 Extended Edition. While working on an HDR image, he wants to apply the liquefy filter.
What steps should he perform to apply the filter on an HDR image?
A. Photoshop CS4 supports theliquify filter for the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image.
B. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 8 Bits/Channel HDR image.
C. Apply the smart filter first before applying theliquify filter.
D. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 16 Bits/Channel HDR image.
Answer: A,B,C,D

Adobe   9A0-125   9A0-125자격증   9A0-125 dump

NO.16 Which of the following blending modes darkens the base color by increasing the contrast to reflect the
blend color?
A. Color Burn
B. Linear Burn
C. Clear
D. Behind mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

Adobe   9A0-125   9A0-125자료   9A0-125

NO.17 Which of the following is used to convert vendor specific raw data to universal raw data?
A. The Extract filter
B. The Convert to Profile command
C. The Assign Profile command
D. The Digital Negative Converter
Answer: A,B,C,D

Adobe pdf   9A0-125   9A0-125 dump

NO.18 Which of the following statements truly explains the difference between a template and a preset?
A. You store a predefined layout in template and settings in preset.
B. A template is a predefined layout whereas a preset is always user generated.
C. Presets can be created, saved, and exported for other photographers to use, but template but not.
D. A template is a creative effect but a preset is a design pattern.
Answer: A

Adobe인증   9A0-125자격증   9A0-125   9A0-125 pdf
Explanation:

NO.19 Which of the following options of Photomerge is used to select one image and set it as the vantage
point for the panorama?
A. Perspective
B. Reposition
C. Collage
D. Auto
Answer: A

Adobe   9A0-125기출문제   9A0-125   9A0-125시험문제

NO.20 When you open an HDR image in Photoshop, it looks very dark. Which of the following actions will you
take to adjust the image?
A. Choose Image > Adjustment > Brightness/Contrast
B. Choose Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Brightness/Contrast
C. Choose View > 32-Bit Preview Options.
D. Choose Edit > 32-Bit Image Adjustment.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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도비 Autodesk MAYA11_A 시험

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시험 번호/코드: MAYA11_A
시험 이름: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a brush
Answer: B

Autodesk기출문제   MAYA11_A기출문제   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A dump

NO.2 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script.?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

Autodesk   MAYA11_A기출문제   MAYA11_A자료   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A pdf

NO.3 To composite two layers together you would use...
A. Composition settings
B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

Autodesk pdf   MAYA11_A   MAYA11_A

NO.4 Which of the following is a way to control deformations using a Smooth Bind?
A. Add Influence
B. Flexors.
C. Projection Box.
D. Both A and B
Answer: B

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NO.5 The ViewCube is an on-screen 3D navigation element that does which of the following?
A. Creates a multicamera rig to navigate through your scene
B. Provides feedback about stereo cameras and performs calculations to produce anaglyph images
C. Enables you to quickly and easily switch between views.
D. Provides feedback about the current camera view in relation to the 3D scene
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: I40-420
시험 이름: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
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NO.1 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

IFPUG   I40-420자료   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420

NO.2 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

IFPUG   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420시험문제   I40-420

NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

IFPUG   I40-420   I40-420

NO.5 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

IFPUG시험문제   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420

NO.6 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

IFPUG덤프   I40-420자료   I40-420   I40-420시험문제

NO.7 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

IFPUG   I40-420시험문제   I40-420 dump

NO.8 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

IFPUG   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420   I40-420

NO.9 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.10 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

IFPUG   I40-420덤프   I40-420최신덤프   I40-420

NO.12 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

IFPUG시험문제   I40-420덤프   I40-420   I40-420덤프

NO.13 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

IFPUG pdf   I40-420   I40-420자격증

NO.16 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

IFPUG기출문제   I40-420시험문제   I40-420자격증   I40-420   I40-420

NO.17 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

IFPUG   I40-420 dumps   I40-420덤프   I40-420시험문제   I40-420최신덤프

NO.18 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

IFPUG dump   I40-420   I40-420

NO.19 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

IFPUG   I40-420   I40-420 pdf

NO.20 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 020-222
시험 이름: ACSM (ACSM Health/Fitness Instructor Exam)
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NO.1 The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue metabolic
systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B

ACSM자격증   020-222   020-222덤프   020-222

NO.3 .Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary
widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration should be given to
older adults when giving a fitness test, because
A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B

ACSM   020-222자격증   020-222   020-222

NO.6 .A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours
before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the
assessment.
Answer: A

ACSM자료   020-222 dump   020-222   020-222

NO.7 .Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female
client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A

ACSM   020-222   020-222   020-222   020-222

NO.8 .Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C

ACSM   020-222 pdf   020-222 dump

NO.10 .Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of error.
Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this technique to determine
body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.
Answer: A

ACSM   020-222덤프   020-222기출문제

NO.11 .During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40
seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D

ACSM   020-222   020-222   020-222최신덤프   020-222

NO.13 .Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D

ACSM   020-222자료   020-222인증   020-222   020-222

NO.14 .A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent
resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol
of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C

ACSM자료   020-222   020-222   020-222   020-222

NO.15 .A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional
provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A

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시험 이름: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)
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NO.1 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

Riverbed자료   201-01 dump   201-01 dumps

NO.2 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01시험문제

NO.3 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

Riverbed pdf   201-01   201-01   201-01기출문제

NO.4 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

Riverbed   201-01   201-01최신덤프   201-01   201-01

NO.5 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

Riverbed시험문제   201-01   201-01   201-01덤프

NO.6 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

Riverbed자격증   201-01인증   201-01   201-01 pdf   201-01기출문제

NO.7 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01자격증   201-01시험문제

NO.8 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

Riverbed   201-01기출문제   201-01자격증   201-01   201-01 dump   201-01

NO.9 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

Riverbed자격증   201-01   201-01자격증   201-01기출문제

NO.10 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

Riverbed인증   201-01인증   201-01

NO.11 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

Riverbed   201-01   201-01최신덤프

NO.12 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

Riverbed   201-01자격증   201-01자료   201-01

NO.13 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

Riverbed   201-01   201-01자료   201-01

NO.14 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

Riverbed pdf   201-01   201-01   201-01

NO.15 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01   201-01   201-01 pdf

NO.16 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

Riverbed   201-01자료   201-01자료   201-01   201-01 dumps

NO.17 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

Riverbed   201-01덤프   201-01기출문제   201-01

NO.18 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

Riverbed   201-01 pdf   201-01자료   201-01   201-01자료

NO.19 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

Riverbed최신덤프   201-01   201-01기출문제   201-01   201-01

NO.20 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

Riverbed인증   201-01   201-01인증   201-01

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시험 번호/코드: SD0-401
시험 이름: SDI (Service Desk Foundation Qualification)
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NO.1 Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
Answer: A

SDI인증   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.2 What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401인증   SD0-401기출문제   SD0-401

NO.3 When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
Answer: C

SDI최신덤프   SD0-401자료   SD0-401 dumps

NO.4 Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

SDI자료   SD0-401기출문제   SD0-401

NO.5 What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401최신덤프   SD0-401기출문제   SD0-401 dumps

NO.6 Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401 pdf   SD0-401자료

NO.7 What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.
B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
Answer: C

SDI자격증   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401기출문제   SD0-401

NO.8 What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401   SD0-401

NO.9 What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401시험문제   SD0-401

NO.10 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401 dumps   SD0-401   SD0-401덤프

NO.11 Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.
B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
Answer: B

SDI   SD0-401   SD0-401자료   SD0-401

NO.12 What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D

SDI dump   SD0-401 dumps   SD0-401자료

NO.13 What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A

SDI   SD0-401최신덤프   SD0-401 pdf   SD0-401

NO.14 What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C

SDI자료   SD0-401최신덤프   SD0-401기출문제   SD0-401

NO.15 What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B

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만약 아직도BlackBerry BCP-223시험패스를 위하여 고군분투하고 있다면 바로 우리 ITExamDump를 선택함으로 여러분의 고민을 날려버릴 수 잇습니다, 우리 ITExamDump에서는 최고의 최신의 덤프자료를 제공 합으로 여러분을 도와BlackBerry BCP-223인증자격증을 쉽게 취득할 수 있게 해드립니다. 만약BlackBerry BCP-223인증시험으로 한층 업그레이드된 자신을 만나고 싶다면 우리ITExamDump선택을 후회하지 않을 것입니다, 우리ITExamDump과의 만남으로 여러분은 한번에 아주 간편하게BlackBerry BCP-223시험을 패스하실 수 있으며,BlackBerry BCP-223자격증으로 완벽한 스펙을 쌓으실 수 있습니다,

BCP-223는BlackBerry의 인증시험입니다.BCP-223인증시험을 패스하면BlackBerry인증과 한 발작 더 내디딘 것입니다. 때문에BCP-223시험의 인기는 날마다 더해갑니다.BCP-223시험에 응시하는 분들도 날마다 더 많아지고 있습니다. 하지만BCP-223시험의 통과 율은 아주 낮습니다.BCP-223인증시험준비중인 여러분은 어떤 자료를 준비하였나요?

시험 번호/코드: BCP-223
시험 이름: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in a Microsoft Exchange Environment)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 109 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

BlackBerry인증 BCP-223시험을 패스하기 위하여 잠을 설쳐가며 시험준비 공부를 하고 계신 분들은 이 글을 보는 즉시 공부방법이 틀렸구나 하는 생각이 들것입니다. ITExamDump의BlackBerry인증 BCP-223덤프는 실제시험을 대비하여 제작한 최신버전 공부자료로서 문항수도 적합하여 불필요한 공부는 하지 않으셔도 되게끔 만들어져 있습니다.가격도 착하고 시험패스율 높은ITExamDump의BlackBerry인증 BCP-223덤프를 애용해보세요. 놀라운 기적을 안겨드릴것입니다.

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NO.1 A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server is
having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following ule Types?define a change in the data for an item being monitored by the
BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (ChooseWhich of the following ?ule Types?define a change in the data
for an item being monitored by the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose three.)
A. Value Based Rule
B. Time Based Rule
C. Trigger Based Rule
D. Action Based Rule
E. Duration Based Rule
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 IT policies are assigned for the BlackBerry Enterprise Server at multiple levels. When there are
overlaps what level of the IT policy takes priority? (Choose one.)
A. User
B. Group
C. Server
D. Domain
E. Corporate
Answer: A

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NO.4 What happens to the activation email message after the BlackBerry Messaging Agent has retrieved it
from the mailbox? (Choose one.)
A. Email message is marked as read
B. Email message is moved to the Sent folder
C. Email message remains in the Inbox unread
D. Email message is removed from the Inbox
E. Email message is filed to the BlackBerry folder in the mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.5 A system administrator attempts to start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services but receives the
following error message: System Error 1069 has occurred. What could be the possible cause for this error?
(Choose one.)
A. The system administrator is logged into the computer with the wrong account
B. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are starting with the local system account
C. The system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator roleThe
system administrator has not been assigned to the Enterprise Administrator?role
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server services are trying to login with the incorrect login information
E. The Microsoft SQL and Microsoft Exchange services are not started on the remote computer
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can a support representative assign a custom enterprise activation password to a BlackBerry
device user? (Choose one.)
A. Generate an activation email through the BlackBerry Administration Service
B. Assign a custom password through the IT policy assigned to the user
C. Send a PIN message to the user containing the custom password
D. Specify an activation password through the BlackBerry Administration Service
E. Assign the password to the PIN through the Enterprise Service Policy
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator runs daily reports on BlackBerry device users with the BlackBerry Monitoring
Service. The system administrator notices that the pending count for 2 out of 30 users is increasing. How
can the system administrator verify the two users are able to establish a data connection for email
message flow? (Choose two.)
A. Produce another daily report to verify that pending count will decrease
B. Send a PIN message to the two affected users
C. Check the application log for any errors for the two users
D. Remove and re-add the two users and start the BlackBerry Enterprise Server services
E. Verify the port 3101 is open on the firewall
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 By default how long will the enterprise activation password last before it expires within the BlackBerry
Administration Service? (Choose one.)
A. 1 hour
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 7 days
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following components is responsible for performing wireless calendar
synchronization? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Synchronization Service
B. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
C. BlackBerry MailStore Service
D. BlackBerry Controller Service
E. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
Answer: B

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NO.10 While provisioning a new BlackBerry device for a user, the following error is displayed: An error has
occurred. Please contact your System Administrator. When reviewing the logs the following is located:
User is not authorized for BlackBerry services What could be the cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The user account needs to be assigned to a user group
B. The PIN needs to be added to the Approved PIN list in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. A security wipe must be performed on the BlackBerry device prior to starting the enterprise activation
process
D. Enterprise Server Policy needs to be enabled on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. An IT policy must be assigned to the newly created user account
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which are the minimum supported BlackBerry Enterprise Server versions which can be upgraded to
BlackBerry Enterprise Server version 5.0? (Choose one.)
A. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
B. 4.0 SP3 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
C. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP4 or later
D. 4.0 SP5 or later and 4.1 SP6 or later
E. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP4 or later
F. 4.0 SP7 and 4.1 SP6 or later
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which of the following are two pieces of information required when configuring a remote component
for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 A system administrator has applied Service Pack 1 to the Microsoft Office Communicator Server 2007.
The system administrator decides to restart the BlackBerry Collaboration Service. What will be the effect
on the BlackBerry device users that are currently logged in to the Microsoft Office Communicator client?
(Choose one.)
A. The users will not notice any difference
B. The connection will appear slow while the service restarts
C. The contacts will temporarily be lost in the Microsoft Office Communicator client
D. The current session will be dropped and the users will have to log in again
E. The users will not be able to send messages
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which BlackBerry Enterprise Server components can be installed on remote computers; separate from
the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Controller Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
D. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
E. BlackBerry Monitoring Service
F. BlackBerry Alert Service
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

NO.16 Which two methods can be used to directly access the Windows Event Log to review them for errors?
(Choose two.)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Windows Control Panel
C. Windows Run command
D. BlackBerry Configuration Tool
E. BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 What icon is displayed in the menus on the BlackBerry device to indicate that an option has been
disabled by an IT policy? (Choose one.)
A. Red Padlock
B. Red ?Red ?
C. Black ?Black ?
D. Black Padlock
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which one of the following is the correct registry path to the BlackBerry Configuration Database
information? (Choose one.)
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise Server\
C. HKEY_LOCAL_USER\SOFTWARE\ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry Enterprise
Server\Database\
D. This information is not stored in the registry
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which BlackBerry Router Service configuration must be done before performing a wireless enterprise
activation over Wi-Fi ? (Choose one.)
A. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is not installed remotely
B. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to Microsoft SQL Server
C. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service has appropriate permissions to the mailbox
D. Ensure the BlackBerry Router Service is configured to listen on port 8080
E. Verify the setting Permit wireless activation in your WLAN environment is enabled
Answer: E

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NO.20 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to open this item. Once you have completed this item and have selected Done, you
may click Next to proceed to the next item.
Answer:

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